¹ chistar ‘to utter a sound’ is not to be traced back to Basque txistu ‘to whistle', as Rice, Hisp. Rev. 6.75, would have it; for the Sp. and the Basque word are both ‘elementarverwandt’ as 'Schallwörter'. How can Rice without any material prove that the Sp. word is Basque and not the reverse, or that they are not both parallel formations? It is well known that imitative harmony and borrowing of words are not mutually exclusive. Compare the paragraphs on 'Lautmalerei’ in my Hugo-Schuchardt-Brevier and especially Schuchardt's review in Literaturblatt, 40.397 of H. Urtel's Zur baskischen Onomatopoesis. There is also a 'basque superflu’.