At line 1025 of Sophocles' Oedipus Tyrannus,
our hero seems victim of some serious ‘obtuseness of understanding’,Footnote 2 because the Corinthian to whom Oedipus is speaking has already clearly denied being the father of the foundling (line 1020 ἀλλ᾽ οὔ σ᾽ ἐγείνατ᾽ οὔτ᾽ ἐκεῖνος [sc. Polybus] οὔτ᾽ ἐγώ, ‘well, neither he nor I begot you’). Is Oedipus in such a state of mental confusion? Perhaps his supposed ‘obtuseness of understanding’ depends on his permanent hallucination? Maybe the same hallucination that keeps him from understanding the explicit prophecies of Teiresias (lines 408–25, 447–62) or drawing obvious conclusions from the revelation of Jocasta (lines 707–25). If so, the text requires no correction, and Sophocles' strategy is to show, through this and similar clues, the basic weakness of the protagonist, who proves to be nothing but a puppet in the hands of the gods.
Such has been, from Bruhn's time, the argument of those who defend the paradosis: and given the recent trend of textual conservatism, it is no wonder that this argument has won considerable approval.Footnote 3 Instead, those who believe that the text is evidently corrupt turn the charge of ‘obtuseness’ against the advocates of τεκών;Footnote 4 and both Lloyd-Jones‒Wilson and Dawe, as many before them,Footnote 5 prefer the excellent emendation τυχών proposed by Bothe and (independently) by Foertsch.Footnote 6
Many internal reasons, in my opinion, support the correction. The pure principle of non-contradiction, so often invoked by the supporters of τυχών, is perhaps too easy to refute, as we have seen, on the basis of dramatic or psychological arguments; but a typical feature of all interrogations conducted by Oedipus in the course of the drama should be emphasized: whenever the protagonist puts his question, as happens here, in this characteristic disjunctive form, the second possibility he suggests is precisely the right one (see lines 112–13 πότερα δ᾽ ἐν οἴκοις, ἢ ᾽ν ἀγροῖς ὁ Λάϊος, | ἢ γῆς ἐπ᾽ ἄλλης τῷδε συμπίπτει φόνῳ;, 960 πότερα δόλοισιν, ἢ νόσου ξυναλλαγῇ;, 1162 πόθεν λαβών; οἰκεῖον ἢ ᾽ξ ἄλλου τινός;, 1168 ἦ δοῦλος, ἢ κείνου τις ἐγγενὴς γεγώς;).Footnote 7 At line 1025, this use would be respected only if the second element of the disjunction could find some correspondence in the answer of the interlocutor, as happens exactly with the conjectural τυχών (εὑρὼν ναπαίαις ἐν Κιθαιρῶνος πτυχαῖς, ‘I found you in the wooded glens of Cithaeron’, replies the Corinthian at line 1026) and not with the transmitted τεκών.
But we have to admit that this and analogous internal arguments are refutable.Footnote 8 Rather, there is another aspect of the problem to which I wish to draw attention here: the ancient scholium on line 1025, which has been strangely ignored as a possible argument for the constitutio textus of this disputed line.
In fact, in the right margin of L (Laur. Plut. 32.9, fol. 44r) we read the following (p. 202 Pap.):Footnote 9
ἐμπολήσας] ἀγοράσας· δηλοῖ δὲ ἡ λέξις καὶ τὸ εὑρών.
The same explanation—according to De Marco—is in the ‘Roman family’ of manuscripts, i.e. G (Laur. Conv. Soppr. 152), R (Vat. Gr. 2291) and M (Mutin. α.Τ.9.4).Footnote 10 What is surprising here is the asserted synonymy between ἐμπολήσας and εὑρών, which seems devoid of any logic, as well as unparalleled in ancient scholarship (note that the scholia recentiora furnish plainer and more ordinary equivalencesFootnote 11 ). One could perhaps explain the interpretamentum as a clumsy expedient devised by ancient commentators to justify the answer of the Corinthian (εὑρὼν ναπαίαις, etc.), given its apparent lack of connection to the alternative envisaged by Oedipus (ἐμπολήσας ἢ τεκών). This, of course, cannot be a fortiori excluded, though it is rather improbable.Footnote 12
But there is at least one clue—in addition to the gratuitous equivalence ἐμπολήσας ~ εὑρών—that rather suggests a textual corruption in the scholium as transmitted in our manuscripts: a corruption of a very common type, i.e. the conflatio of two or more interpretamenta under the same lemma, or the agglutination of two or more independent scholia in a single and confused explanation, that loses its original ties (also in terms of mise en page) with the original textual references.Footnote 13 The clue that suggests this possibility is the regular correspondence—in the stereotyped synonymic series on which the ancient interpretamenta are based—between forms of εὑρεῖν and forms of τυχεῖν, with their respective compounds. See the illuminating explanation of the scholia recentiora at line 598 of the OT: τυχεῖν] εὑρεῖν (Max. Plan. p. 134 Longo); or at line 1039 of the same drama: τυχών] ἐντυχών· εὑρών (Man. Mosch. p. 65 Longo). See also, among the many possible examples, scholia Aesch. Sept. 209b εὗρε] ἐπέτυχε (II/2, p. 105 S.), 520b τυχών] εὑρεθείς and 520c τυχών] συμβάς, εὑρεθείς (II/2, p. 237 S.), 550b τύχοιεν] εὕροιεν (II/2, p. 250 S.), schol. Soph. Ph. 552 (p. 367 Pap.) προστυχόντι τῶν ἴσων] ἀντὶ εὑρόντι κτλ., schol. Eur. Hec. 698 (I, p. 62 Schw.) εὗρον] ἔτυχον, schol. Ar. Eq. 404b (p. 101 M.J.) ὥσπερ εὗρες] ὥσπερ ἐπέτυχες, schol. rec. Ar. Nub. 535a (p. 309 Kost.) ᾿πιτύχῃ] ἐντύχῃ ChisCant2, εὕρῃ LbChalc, καταλάβῃ Va, as well as Hesych. ε 1783 L. ἐκύρησα· εὗρον. ἔτυχον, ἐπέτυχον, κ 4707 L. κύρσας· ἐπιτυχών r. n., εὑρών n., etc.
On this basis, it seems perfectly reasonable to explain the surprising diction of our scholium as the result of the conflation of two distinct annotations such as (for example) these:
ἐμπολήσας] ἀγοράσας.
<τυχών] ἐντυχών [uel ἐπιτυχών]·> δηλοῖ δὲ ἡ λέξις καὶ τὸ εὑρών.
Of course, other reconstructions would be possible: for instance, supposing a saut du même au même after the unification of two distinct interpretamenta, ἐμπολήσας] ἀγοράσας· <τυχών] ἐπιτυχών, κύρσας·> (cf. Hesych. κ 4703 e 4707 L.) δηλοῖ δὲ ἡ λέξις κτλ.; alternatively, we could consider κιχών, conjectured by Heimsoeth: see schol. Nic. Ther. 502c (p. 199 Crugnola) κιχών] εὑρών. We could also suppose, more simply, that the typical formula δηλοῖ δὲ ἡ λέξις καί (cf. n. 11) has been added after two independent annotations such as ἐμπολήσας] ἀγοράσας, τυχών] εὑρὼν were merged into one.
In any case, the transmitted text of the scholium cannot be considered free from suspicion; and it seems to me highly plausible that its present incongruous formulation shows traces of a former state of Sophocles' text without the corrupted form τεκών,Footnote 14 but with something liable to be explained with εὑρών. In this case, it is difficult to find a better candidate than τυχών.