In a chapter on sexual coercion, Angeliki Laiou used the concept of the marital debt to explain Byzantine understandings of what we now call marital rape.Footnote 1 She took as an example a married couple from the village of Govlastou, in the diocese of Naupaktos. Eirene and Konstantinos had been married for a year but had not managed to consummate their union. Bishop John Apokaukos (d. 1233), who was in charge of this case, tells us that Eirene had come to hate her husband and refused to sleep with him. She would bite and scratch him when he tried to approach her, so that Konstantinos came to believe that even her voice and sight had better been avoided.Footnote 2 Eirene seemed impervious to the jeering of the community and the threats of the Church's administrators who, tired of words, would often lock the two spouses in a room hoping that intimacy would ensue. The marriage was never consummated and Apokaukos granted the couple a divorce. Laiou saw this as a case where, in the eyes of the couple's contemporaries, the exaction of the marital debt justified marital rape. She suggested that, although neither the canons nor their commentators sanction the use of force, this mode of thinking might have made it acceptable: ‘perhaps the issue would have been seen less as forcing the unwilling partner and more as ensuring the payment of the marital debt’.Footnote 3
As used by Western medievalists, the ‘marital debt’ refers to the obligation of both spouses to have sex with each other on demand. This was an idea that emerged from Paul's instruction in 1 Corinthians vii.3–5 and was further elaborated by Western canon lawyers starting with Gratian in the mid-twelfth century.Footnote 4 The concept of the marital debt was defined clearly in linguistic terms: in the context of marriage ‘debitum’ unambiguously referred to sexual intercourse.Footnote 5 It was also defined clearly in terms of the rules of rendering and exacting: when, where, and how spouses should engage in sexual intercourse.Footnote 6 In fact, it was so well understood that it could be used without further explanation to frame other religious questions. Do you render the debt to a penitent spouse?Footnote 7 Can you divorce a spouse who cannot render the debt because of their frigidity?Footnote 8 Can you deprive your husband or wife of their debt by taking a vow of chastity?Footnote 9 For many canonists rendering the debt came before any other consideration.Footnote 10 Indeed, by the mid-thirteenth century, it had become so important that it was theoretically permissible for couples to have sexual intercourse in a church, if no other place was available at that time.Footnote 11 Although profaning sacred space was still considered a sin, it was seen as a lesser evil than denying one's right to the marital debt. This was a time-sensitive question: sexual intercourse had to be performed there and then.
Can we talk of a marital debt along these lines in a Byzantine context, as Laiou did, or is the term misleading, implying more about the relationship between husband and wife than can be inferred from the sources? It is reasonable to assume that in both societies there was an expectation that spouses would engage in sexual intercourse.Footnote 12 It is less clear, however, that there was in Byzantium an obligation to have sex on demand like the one we find in the West. In the rest of this article, I will look at the differences and similarities in the notion of the marital debt in Byzantium and the West in order to evaluate the usefulness of this term. Focusing primarily on legal sources, it will be argued that whereas in the West the expectation of marital sex was transformed into an imperative, the Byzantines did not develop a rigid concept of sexual obligation. The main period under consideration will be the twelfth and thirteenth centuries when the sources used by Laiou were written. However, given that many Byzantine ideas on marriage and sexuality developed in late antiquity, frequent reference will be made to earlier authors. Particular attention will be paid to John Chrysostom (d. 407), whose works continued to be influential throughout the Byzantine period.Footnote 13 Most of the examples for the West will come from twelfth-century England. But, in this period, Western Europe shared to a great extent a common legal culture and similar examples could be found from Northern France.Footnote 14
A linguistic concept?
The Byzantines do not seem to have had a fixed term associated with the marital debt. A good place to start looking for one would be references to 1 Cor. vii.3, since the word ‘debitum’ was taken from the Vulgate translation of Paul's verse: ‘uxori vir debitum reddat similiter autem et uxor viro’ (‘let the husband render the debt to his wife and similarly the wife to her husband’). John Chrysostom uses in his homilies on the Bible a variety of expressions to refer to Paul's debt, notably ὀφειλή (debt), ὀφειλομένη τιμή (due honour) and ὀφειλομένη εὔνοια (due favour).Footnote 15 The things owed, εὔνοια and τιμή, are not suggestive of sexual intercourse. The word εὔνοια is used in Chrysostom in a variety of contexts referring to familial favour or to the good will that God shows towards man and man towards God.Footnote 16 In the context of 1 Cor. vii.3–5, Chrysostom defines the term as follows:
When Paul says, ‘Let each woman have her own husband’, he adds, ‘Let the husband show his wife the good will which is due [τὴν ὀφειλομένην εὔνοιαν]’. What does he mean when he says this? Is it to preserve her access to her money? Is it to keep her dowry intact? Is it to provide her with expensive clothes, or an extravagant table, or a conspicuous display when she goes out? Is it to have her attended by many servants? What do you say? What kind of good will do you seek? [ποῖον εὐνοίας εἶδος ζητεῖς;] All of these things show good will [εὐνοίας], do they not? I do not mean any of these, Paul says, but chastity and holiness [τὴν σωφροσύνην καὶ τὴν σεμνότητα]. The husband's body is no longer the husband's, but the wife's. Therefore he must keep her property intact, without diminishing it or damaging it.Footnote 17
Here Chrysostom seems to have a different debt in mind. What is owed is marital fidelity rather than marital sex. Spouses are not asked to have intercourse on demand, but to preserve their chastity and to remain faithful to each other, to preserve their body, the property of their spouse, intact. Interestingly, the second consideration that comes up in this quotation is linked to money. The term εὔνοια is more generally associated with the husband's duty to provide for his wife financially.Footnote 18 Men should consider their money to be shared with their wives and women should not think that their husbands owe them extravagant luxuries. This is a recurrent theme in Chrysostom's homilies on marital life, where husbands and wives are advised to marry people of similar economic backgrounds and to focus on spiritual quests rather than the vanities of the world.Footnote 19
The topics of marital fidelity and household finances are also brought together in Chrysostom's Homily 19 on 1 Cor. vii where the words τιμή and ὀφειλή are used:Footnote 20
Let the husband render to his wife her due honour [ὀφειλομένην τιμήν]; similarly the wife to her husband. But what is this due honour? The wife does not have power over her own body; but is both slave (δούλη) and mistress of her husband. And if you avoid this servitude [δουλείας] which is your due, you offend God. But if you wish to avoid it, it should be when your husband allows it, even if it is for a short period of time. For this reason he called this thing a debt [ὀφειλήν], to show that no-one is master of themselves but that they are each other's slaves. When therefore you see a harlot tempting you, say: ‘My body is not my own, but my wife's’. Let also the wife say the same to those who want to undermine her chastity: ‘My body is not my own, but my husband's’. So if neither husband nor wife has power over their bodies, they have even less power over money. Listen, all you who have husbands and wives: if you cannot have your own body, you can certainly not have your own money.Footnote 21
Chrysostom, then, used a variety of words to refer to marital duties, but none of them was specifically associated with an obligation to engage in marital sex. If sexual intercourse sprang to mind when referring to 1 Cor. vii.3–5, marital fidelity and household finances would have done the same.Footnote 22
Contrary to the situation in the West, this vocabulary was not adopted in a legal context. The terms ὀφειλή, ὀφειλομένη εὔνοια and ὀφειλομένη τιμή are not associated with marital sex in the twelfth-century canonical commentaries of John Zonaras and Theodore Balsamon.Footnote 23 In them, they come up in different contexts. The word τιμή is frequently used to refer to ecclesiastical honour.Footnote 24 The term ὀφειλή appears almost exclusively in its verb form, ὀφείλει, meaning ‘ought to’.Footnote 25 Instead of the word εὔνοια, the term ἔρως is often used to refer to sexual love.Footnote 26 Similarly, Apokaukos uses neither εὔνοια nor τιμή when talking about Eirene and Konstantinos: what a wife owes (ὀφείλει) her husband is φιλίαν (love) and ὑποταγήν (obedience).Footnote 27 The opposite of this love is μῖσος (hatred), something which according to Apokaukos is unnatural for a wife to feel and comparable to a son raising his hand against his father.Footnote 28 Clearly, this wifely love or hatred referred to something more than sexual intercourse. In fact, despite the nature of the issue at hand, Apokaukos does not talk specifically of a sexual obligation. The biblical references he gives in support of his argument are Ephesians v.23, ‘For the husband is the head of the wife as Christ is the head of the Church’ and Genesis iii.16, ‘Your desire will be for your husband, and he will rule over you’, rather than 1 Cor. vii.3.
Byzantine spouses were of course expected to have sex with each other; this was after all part of ensuring marital fidelity and avoiding familial strife. But by associating Paul's command with chastity, marital fidelity, love and obedience Byzantine authors switched the emphasis, allowing for a looser interpretation where frequent sexual intercourse between spouses was expected but did not have to take place every time one of them wished to. As such, it seems misleading to reduce these various interpretations linguistically to a ‘marital debt’, given the sexual connotations of that term.
Sophisticated regulations?
We get another hint of why talking of a ‘marital debt’ might be misleading in a Byzantine context by looking at the far-reaching impact that this concept had in the West. The claim to one's marital debt was so well established that it could not be neglected even for pious reasons, such as taking vows.Footnote 29 In the case of vows of fasting, Thomas of Chobham, an early thirteenth-century dean of Salisbury, emphasised that ‘the wife is not allowed to weaken her body through abstinence to such an extent that she will be less able to render the debt to her husband’.Footnote 30 In the case of monastic vows, both spouses had to agree to give up their claim to the marital debt before one of them could enter a monastery. Gratian stated explicitly that once this consent had been given, neither spouse could subsequently change their mind ‘because in the conjugal debt the wife has equal power to her husband, just like the husband to his wife’.Footnote 31 Similarly, in the case of vows of pilgrimage, Ivo of Chartres (1090–1115), the most important canonist of the age of the First Crusade, emphasised the need for mutual consent before the husband's departure.Footnote 32 Such advice must have been followed all too often, as at the time of the Fourth Crusade Pope Innocent iii (1198–1216) had to issue a special dispensation for husbands who wished to participate without their wife's permission. This was done ‘lest the relief of the Holy Land should be thoroughly impeded or further delayed’ by the right of wives to exact their marital debt.Footnote 33
This emphasis on the marital debt had consequences also for the clergy. It made it impossible for Western clerics to observe temporary continence, as was the case in Byzantium.Footnote 34 Temporary continence would have involved abstaining from sex with their wives before performing the liturgy. But what would happen in the case of a priest who was asked to render the marital debt the night before the celebration of the eucharist? He would have the following options: (1) have sexual intercourse with his wife and then perform the liturgy, thereby sinning; (2) deny his wife her marital debt and perform the liturgy, thereby sinning; (3) have sexual intercourse with his wife and postpone the performance of his ecclesiastical duties, thereby neglecting his flock. This scenario could no longer occur in the West, where the marriage of clerics in major orders was considered invalid.Footnote 35 But it was the topic of debate which involved a fictional Eastern cleric returning to the East after having been ordained in the West. How was he to behave toward his wife? The author of the Summa Lipsiensis, a late twelfth-century commentary on Gratian's Decretum, preferred a radical version of option 3: such a cleric would need to respect his wife's right to the marital debt by completely giving up his clerical office.Footnote 36
We do not find such detailed instructions regarding the sexual life of lay and clerical spouses in Byzantium. To a certain extent, this could be explained through differences in literary genre.Footnote 37 Fictional scenarios, such as the one mentioned above, were more frequent in the West, where they were used as part of teaching and were meant to help students to think in a systematic fashion.Footnote 38 The Byzantine canonical commentaries did not have, as far as we know, a primarily instructive function.Footnote 39 Zonaras and Balsamon go through the canons of the different councils, rephrasing them and explaining any words which might have changed meaning, supporting them with further evidence from ecclesiastical and civil laws, and occasionally complaining about the fact that the rules were no longer kept in their time.Footnote 40 They do not indulge in the elaboration of imaginary scenarios. Instead, they encourage the application of oikonomia.Footnote 41 According to this principle, in imitation of divine mercy, in certain cases the letter of the law can be relaxed and moral concessions can be made. When this happens depends on the particular situation and is left to the discretion of the clerics or even lay people involved.Footnote 42 Indeed, in the case of abstinence from marital sex, canon 3 of Dionysios of Alexandria (d. 264–5) asks the spouses to be their own judges; and Balsamon comments that any penance to be imposed should depend on the couple's individual circumstances.Footnote 43 This was to a certain extent similar to the Western concept of dispensation, which could allow specific individuals to act contrary to canon law, while at the same time preserving the validity of the law in its general form. For example, clerical sons who were forbidden to join the secular clergy could even succeed their father in his church, if they obtained a dispensation.Footnote 44 But dispensations were mostly granted by the pope and were as such difficult to obtain.Footnote 45 On the other hand, the application of oikonomia was much more widespread. When Dionysios asked the spouses to be their own judges, he gave them to a certain extent permission to apply the principle of oikonomia upon themselves. Such was also the case for unordained monks who, in receiving confessions and granting penance, took it upon themselves to attenuate the power of the law when they saw fit.Footnote 46
Although this reflected a wider legal difference, it still had an impact on the way in which people perceived marital relations. It meant that by not refining the concept of the marital debt through the creation of sophisticated rules, Byzantine ideas on marital intercourse remained more fluid. As such, they were less likely to be used to influence decisions, such as the taking of monastic vows. We can see on this topic a clear difference with the West. Byzantine husbands and wives had the right to ask for a divorce in order to enter a monastery without any mention of their sexual responsibilities towards each other.Footnote 47 In his comment on chapter 4 of title 13 of the Nomokanon, which discusses the separation of spouses in order to enter monastic life, Balsamon does not focus on any marital debt, but talks instead about the couple's financial responsibilities and the division of their property.Footnote 48 These are of course cases where there had been common consent to the divorce and the entrance of the spouse to the monastery. But even when one spouse was unwilling, the ‘right’ of their partner to the ‘marital debt’ did not come up. We read, for example, in the Peira, an eleventh-century legal collection, that if a wife has taken refuge in a monastery without her husband's consent and he wants to take her back he can try to convince her but is not allowed to force her: ‘he may go to her and flatter her with words and sit near her at the table and employ every way in order to ignite the old flame, without however using violence or laying his hands on her’.Footnote 49 There is no mention of the husband's right to have sex with his wife or of a debt that ought to be exacted or rendered.Footnote 50
Exacting the debt?
The absence of violence in the above-mentioned account can be significant. According to Western ideas the very notion of exacting the marital debt implied a certain violence done to the unwilling partner and that violence was indeed sanctioned by the Church. When Thomas of Chobham defined this concept in his Summa confessorum, he noted that:
the term ‘exaction’ implies violence, whence exactors are called those who extort something through violence of punishment or fear. If therefore a husband who cannot exact the debt from his wife rouses her through flattery and promises and incites her to consent to have intercourse with him, he is not said to have exacted the debt.Footnote 51
It is likely that in practice Byzantine husbands would have felt that they too could forcefully impose their will upon their wives, but their Church did not openly sanction such behaviour. What we find in the Byzantine canonical commentaries is an expectation that husband and wife will have sex, but not a positive obligation to do so. For example, question 5 of the erotapokriseis of Timothy of Alexandria (d. 385) and Balsamon's comment on it deal with whether a couple should receive communion after they have had sex.Footnote 52 The opposite question is also posed: when should the spouses abstain?Footnote 53 The expectation here is that outside the times set out for abstinence, husband and wife will have sexual intercourse.Footnote 54 But this is not described as a debt rendered by one spouse and exacted by the other. Rather, husband and wife decide together when to have sex.
The closest the canonists come to talking about a marital debt is in their commentaries on canon 3 of Dionysios of Alexandria. They state that
if abstinence does not take place by mutual consent, the party which does not wish to engage in sexual intercourse completely deprives the party which seeks it; and how can the party which seeks intercourse when it is not granted think that it rules over the body of the party which does not grant [it].Footnote 55
The real power lies with the partner who refuses intercourse. The canon rebalances this by recommending a process of negotiation. The spouse who wants sexual intercourse should not be completely deprived.
There is, however, no evidence that husbands or wives always had to acquiesce to their partner's demands. In fact, if we look at the cases that Apokaukos dealt with, we can see that Byzantine spouses tended to be quite patient with each other.Footnote 56 We read, for example, about abandoned wives who waited years before they asked for divorce. One of them, Eudokia, had been married for ten years to Theodoros, who came to Naupaktos to see her only rarely, making her pregnant and disappearing again, caring little about the sustenance of her and her children. In the last five years Theodoros had disappeared altogether and Eudokia was now asking for divorce. In his description of this case, Apokaukos mentioned that Eudokia was young and beautiful and experienced carnal passions, but made no mention of any marital debt.Footnote 57
He came closer to that in his description of another abandoned wife and her husband, Xiphilinos, where he referred specifically to 1 Cor. vii.3–5:
Xiphilinos did not have sexual intercourse with her, did not live with her, did not even visit her. And the Apostle teaches [us] that spouses should not deprive each other, unless by common consent. It is evident that for this reason a man marries a woman, so that he may produce children for the succession of his line, and so that they can help each other against the abuses of the flesh and so that they may not fall into fornication. For why else would He have created woman as a helpmeet to man, and would consider her to be his own member [μέλος], following Paul's teaching? But when for so many years [ἐπί τοσούτοις ἔτεσιν] the husband neither has intercourse with his own wife nor provides for her food and clothing, fornication is given free reign entirely because of the husband's fault and the husband becomes most responsible.Footnote 58
Apokaukos acknowledges the husband's obligation to have sexual intercourse with his wife, both in order to produce children and to protect her and himself against adultery. He does not, however, use the vocabulary of ‘debt’; rather, when talking about μέλος, he refers to Paul's instruction (Eph. v.28) that husbands ought to love their wives as their own bodies.Footnote 59 Importantly, we can see here the different time frame within which intercourse was expected to take place in a Byzantine context. Xiphilinos had not had intercourse with Eudokia ‘for so many years’; this is what made this situation truly problematic.
Apokaukos also tells us about couples who remained for years in unconsummated marriages. An unnamed couple waited twelve years before they finally asked to be separated; Anna and Konstantinos Vlassopoulos waited five years; Theodoros Fragopoulos and Euphemia waited seven years.Footnote 60 Indeed, the latter was a case addressed to Apokaukos by one of his suffragan bishops who did not know himself whether seven years was enough time to wait. According to Byzantine law in such cases it would have been enough for the spouses to wait three years before they could ask for divorce.Footnote 61 The great amounts of time that the couples in Apokaukos's cases were willing to wait shows that marital sex was not thought of as something that could be exacted there and then.
The case of Eirene and Konstantinos also falls under this category. The couple had never had sex. This makes their example even more unsuitable as, according to Gratian, the obligation to have sexual intercourse came into being only after consummation.Footnote 62 Konstantinos, then, had never established his right to exact the marital debt. This rule stemmed from Western ideas on the formation of marriage which predicated that physical consummation along with consent was necessary to validate a marital union.Footnote 63 Even if we were to assume that the Byzantines had a concept of the marital debt, we would need to determine when this concept came into being within marriage – after the blessing of the couple or after consummation? This then is a further reminder that the use of the term ‘marital debt’ cannot be borrowed from the West and applied to the East in an uncomplicated way.
A necessary debt?
One reason why the concept of the marital debt did not develop in Byzantium is that Byzantine ecclesiastics had less use for it compared to their Western counterparts. In both societies the Church would have wanted to encourage married couples to engage in sexual intercourse in order to avoid extra-marital affairs. In the West, however, there was an extra incentive. As James Brundage has argued, the need for a sophisticated system of rendering and exacting arose out of the moral scruples that medieval canon lawyers showed regarding sexual pleasure.Footnote 64 Following Augustine, Western ecclesiastics believed that in the postlapsarian state sexual intercourse, even within marriage, was always accompanied by concupiscence. Three goods of marriage were recognised: sexual fidelity, procreation of offspring and indissolubility (‘bonum fidei, prolis et sacramenti’).Footnote 65 The marital debt was linked to the first of them. Yet, this did not automatically render sexual relations within marriage blameless. The level of sin depended on several factors, such as the time, place and manner of sexual intercourse. It would be worse for example for a spouse to exact or render their debt during Lent, in a sanctified place, or choosing an unusual coital position.Footnote 66 The views of canon lawyers were generally stricter than those of theologians, as most of the latter considered sex for procreation and rendering the debt sinless irrespective of the circumstances in which it occurred.Footnote 67 On the other hand, the Byzantine Church did not have to justify sexual intercourse between spouses. It was not considered sinful, but was sanctified through the sacrament of marriage. Although this is a topic deserving of a separate study, it is worth giving here some examples of how Byzantine ecclesiastics understood marital intercourse.
For John Chrysostom, procreation did not have to be one of the aims of sex amongst spouses:
At the beginning, the procreation of children was desirable, so that each person might leave a memorial of his life … But now that resurrection is at our gates, and we do not speak of death, but advance toward another life better than the present, the desire for posterity is superfluous … So there remains only one reason for marriage, to avoid fornication, and the remedy is offered for this purpose.Footnote 68
Chrysostom also defended the purity of the marital bed. There was nothing sinful about engaging in sexual intercourse with your spouse:
How do they become one flesh? As if she were gold receiving the purest of gold, the woman receives the man's seed with rich pleasure, and within her it is nourished, cherished, and refined. I know that my words embarrass many of you, and the reason for your shame is your own wanton licentiousness. ‘Let marriage be held in honour among all, and let the marriage bed be undefiled.’Footnote 69
The purity and honour of the marital bed continued to be defended in subsequent centuries. St John Damascene (c. 675–748) encouraged married couples to have sexual intercourse, repeating John Chrysostom's advice in his florilegium of biblical and patristic texts: ‘Let each man enjoy his own wife. And he should not feel shame, but should enter and occupy the bedchamber day and night.’Footnote 70 Similarly, Zonaras emphasised the right of spouses to experience sexual pleasure in a treatise against some overly ascetic monks:
But you, I suppose, will also judge impure the man who has had intercourse with his own wife, when he rises from his bed; and you will not admit him for prayer, but you will even close the doors of the temple against him. You will not take into account that it is stated that marriage is honourable and the bed undefiled, but you will condemn the innocent man because in this case too there is emission of sperm, indeed a pleasurable one.Footnote 71
One of the main differences, then, between East and West was that in the former marital sex was not viewed as sinful in itself and did not need justification through the marital debt. In the West, it seems that the acceptance of one sin led to the creation of another: spouses sinned when they desired or enjoyed sexual intercourse, but they also sinned if they refused to render it when their partner demanded it. In Byzantium, not having sex with your spouse would only become a sin if it led to their committing adultery. Otherwise, it was not a sin for spouses to have sexual intercourse, as it was not a sin to refuse it. This left more room for a process of negotiation where Paul's common consent could actually be reached.
We can conclude then that in Byzantium there was an expectation but not necessarily a rigid obligation to engage in marital sex. There was no fixed linguistic concept; there were no sophisticated rules. Spouses were encouraged to enjoy sexual intercourse, which was primarily meant as a means to avoid adultery and preserve chastity. The marital debt did not emerge as a clearly defined concept because there was little need for it. As such, the use of the term in a Byzantine context is misleading.