There is a widespread practice of spelling the forms κεχρώσμεθα in Euripides' Medea 497 and ϕώζειν in Strattis, fr. 9 K.–A. with the long diphthong omega–iota, that is, κεχρώισμεθα or κεχρῴσμεθα and ϕώιζειν or ϕῴζειν. These spellings are not correct from the etymological point of view, but are recommended by ancient grammarians. In this note I identify the foundation on which these recommendations rest, and provide an assessment of its philological solidness.
We should begin by addressing the issue of the etymology of the two forms. First, the iota in κεχρώισμεθα has no etymological justification. It is true that χρώιζω does have an iota; however, this iota does not belong to the root of the verb but to the suffix of the present tense, that is, to –ίζω. So there is no reason why this iota should be transferred to the perfect tense κεχρώσμεθα. Etymological dictionaries unanimously acknowledge this;Footnote 1 on the other hand, Kühner–Blass (II 575), LSJ (s.v. χρώιζω) and recent editors of Euripides' Medea 497Footnote 2 adopt the form κεχρώισμεθα. Second, forms universally recognized as parallel to ϕώζω such as ϕώγω, ϕώγνυμι, πεϕωγμένος, ϕώγανον, and ϕωκτός, have no iota in their root. To analyse *ϕώιζω as *ϕω + ίζω (= present tense suffix) is impossible, for the parallel forms cited above indicate that the root must be ϕώγ–, not ϕω–. Therefore the correct analysis is ϕωγ + jω, and one can compare, for instance, κρώζω/κρωγμός and οἰμώζω/οἰμωγή. One must then write ϕώζω without iota. Chantraine is right in this respect, whereas Frisk, Beekes,Footnote 3 Kühner–Blass (II 568), LSJ (s.v. ϕώγω), and editors of Stratt. fr. 9 K.–A.Footnote 4 adopt the form with the iota.Footnote 5
Scholars seem to adhere to the forms with iota because there is explicit ancient evidence in their favour:Footnote 6
(i) Lex. Mess. fol. 282v line 20 (p. 410):Footnote 7 χρῴζω· σὺν τῷ ι, ὡς πλῴζω· Εὐριπίδης Μηδείᾳ.
(ii) Et. Gen. ABFootnote 8 (hinc Et. Sym. cod. VFootnote 9 et Etym. Magn. 667.25): πεϕωισμένος· ἀντὶ τοῦ κεκαυμένος, ὡς ἀπὸ τοῦ ϕώιζω ὡς χρώιζω, ἃ ἔχει τὸ ι (litterae τοῦ ϕώι evanuerunt in A).
(iii) Et. Gen. A (om. B) (unde Et. Sym. codd. CV et Etym. Magn. 803.47):Footnote 10 ϕώιζειν· σὺν τῶι ι, σημαίνει δὲ τὸ καίεσθαι (sic A: καίειν Toup,Footnote 11 recte)· Στράττις घωπύρωι περικαιομένωι (fr. 9 K.–A.) «ἀλλ' εἰ μέλλεις ἀνδρείως ϕώιζειν ὥσπερ μύστακα σεαυτόν». Βιθυνοὶ δὲ διὰ τοῦ γ ϕώιγειν λέγουσιν.
We have now good reason to believe that all of the passages above stem from the grammarian Orus of Alexandria, in particular from his treatise On Orthography, and the discovery of their authorship will be shown to diminish their value as evidence for the spellings with omega–iota.Footnote 12
Orus was active in the fifth century a.d., a period in which the pronunciation of the Greek language was substantially different from the time of Euripides and Strattis. As regards the orthographic issue in question, as early as the mid-second century b.c. the second member of the long i-diphthongs (αι, ηι, ωι) had ceased to be soundedFootnote 13 and therefore had ceased to be represented in writing.Footnote 14 So it comes as no surprise to find Orus' On Orthography featuring a section on ἰῶτα ἀνεκϕώνητον;Footnote 15 the same holds true for Herodian's On Orthography, a treatise composed in the second century a.d.Footnote 16
It is therefore the case that in the three passages cited above no living tradition of pronunciation could have guided Orus to decide whether the forms χρώιζω ϕώιζω and πεϕωισμένος should be spelled with ΩΙ or Ω. Nor did literature provide him with any indication thereof.Footnote 17 For the clarification of the issue Orus is seen to employ analogical reasoning.Footnote 18 The most natural way to reconstruct his five arguments from analogy is as follows: (1) since πλώιζω is certainly known to have iota,Footnote 19 and χρώζω is similar to πλώιζω (cf. ὡς πλῴζω in passage [i] above) (that is, similar in respect of ending), then χρώιζω must have iota too.Footnote 20 (2) Now, since χρώιζω takes iota, and since κεχρώσμεθαFootnote 21 is similar to χρώιζω by virtue of their being forms of the same verb, then κεχρώισμεθα must take iota too (passage [i]). (3) Similarly, ϕώιζω was most probably formed under the influence of χρώιζω, as the phrase ὡς χρώιζω in passage (ii) suggests.Footnote 22 Then ϕώιζω in its turn provided the model for (4) πεϕωισμένος (passage [ii])Footnote 23 and (5) ϕώιγω (passage [iii]).
If it is indeed the above analogical reasoning that constitutes the method by which Orus made his decisions about the orthography of κεχρώσμεθα and ϕώζειν, then no reliance is to be placed on these decisions. Ιn the case of κεχρώσμεθα in argument (2), Orus failed to take into account the morphological distinction between the present and the perfect tense. In fact, this significant difference drastically weakens the second premise of the argument, namely the premise which notes the similarity between χρώιζω and κεχρώσμεθα, and makes it incapable of supporting the conclusion. Ιn the case of ϕώζω in argument (3), the comparison with χρώιζω is wholly ill-conceived, for χρώιζω is unrelated to ϕώζω.Footnote 24 Orus' thinking is important only in so far as it indicates a historical stage in the development of orthographic research. But if our goal is to recover the spellings of Euripides and Strattis, it would be wise to follow our mode of orthographic research, which leads to κεχρώσμεθα and ϕώζειν, both without iota.